EdmontonCanuck

.... and the nasty effects gravity has on today's cables 😊

I don't believe that the audio quality in a Youtube video would allow you to make that determination.

Just curious....how is it that you can detect "issues" from a rig in a Youtube video?

It's now been 2 years since you unboxed and set up your Edifiers, and if I recall, you were very impressed with the way they sounded out of the box. With all the "tweaking" you've been doing over the last 2 years, would you say you're "miles ahead" of what they were then? About the same? How would your quantify the progress (if any) that you've made?

If a person listened to a system at 8am, and then later at 12pm, and said they heard a difference (without any changes to the system!), I would also accept this, knowing that it could be as a result of changes in humidity, or changes in his/her blood pressure, or changes in outside temperature/air pressure, or yada yada yada.... Do you accept that this is possible?

OK, I'll jump in with another question that's been bothering me that I'd appreciate clarification on. Is it the general consensus among some here that there are audible differences that can always evade detection by measurement devices? In other words, do you believe that our human auditory system is far more sensitive than the best measuring device? If true, then the statement "not all audible differences can be measured" must be true. I'm still struggling with this basic premise though...it doesn't seem possible to me that with today's tech (where we can measure differences in length of less than a good fraction of a proton's diameter) that some audible differences can escape measurement.

I’m genuinely asking for clarification on a topic that confuses me and you resort to comments like this. Internet forums really can be a waste of time. And you aren’t helpful at all.

Can someone please clear up something that I'm still confused about in all these debates. If two systems audibly sound different, is it not the case that the output audio signal is guaranteed to be measurably different? That is, we definitely have a case of two audibly different waveforms measuring different? And to naturally follow up, if the two waveforms cannot be found to measure differently, can we not say that there is no audible difference? I'm assuming that it is also possible to measure differences, but that the differences are not audible. So then in this case it comes down to where measurements point out a difference, that it is should be demonstrated that it is possible that someone can audibly hear that difference? I'm trying to reconcile in my mind a statement made earlier that in some cases not all audible differences can be measured. This doesn't make sense to me.

But of those that aren't measurable, are they audible?

Anything by this guy

https://worldnewsera.com/news/politics/a-no-fly-zone-in-ukraine-is-a-catastrophically-bad-idea/

I'm guessing it's "rooter".

Why do Brits and Aussie's put an "R" at the end of words that end in "A"? 😊

Because this is an "internet AUDIO DISCUSSION forum" where all points of view are welcome. If you don't like the thread then ignore it.